"Earlier this month newspapers reported that the maid removed her employer's manhood when he tried to molest her in the middle of the night as his wife was sleeping. The maid is now in police custody."
I find the use of "molest" in this paragraph interesting...we almost always see "molest" in terms of children rather than adults, so wouldn't the word here be "rape?" Or does "rape" inherintly imply violence? According to Dictionary.com the definition of "molest" is this:
Molest transitive verb
1 : to annoy, disturb, or persecute esp. with hostile intent or injurious effect
2 : to make annoying sexual advances to; specifically : to force physical and usually sexual contact on (as a child)
Or perhaps the reasoning for the choice of "molest" is in the definition of "rape":
rape n.
1. The crime of forcing another person to submit to sex acts, especially sexual intercourse.
2. The act of seizing and carrying off by force; abduction.
3. Abusive or improper treatment; violation: a rape of justice.
Since this is a case in Saudi Arabia perhaps "molest" is the proper word, since there's probably no law against a man forcing himself on his maid.
If she's lucky she'll be deported and sent back home. If she's not, well, I don't think I want to know what the punishment is for disenmanhoodization.
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